!) What if the employer owns all the equipment - e.g. the phones/computers used to send/receive, or actually provides the im service for internal usage, or it is sent on company time?
2) What if the employee sends a harrasing, objectionable, or illegal message? Today, if that happens on email, the company can be held liable if they aren't taking reasonable steps to block this type of traffic. Does this absolve the employer of responsibility?
3) How does the SEC see this? some companies (i.e. securities traders) are required to log *all* communications, including i.m.
I think this is going to lead some companies to ban all i.m. traffic while on their premises and during working hours - especially if the traffic passes through their routers. If they are providing the phones (many do) they may begin to ask the service provider to block all i.m. to their units.
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This ruling raises additional questions when you factor in regul
This ruling raises additional questions when you factor in regulatory compliance, such as SOX, HIPPA, and SEC. Companies may be required to retain this data but not look at. This is an absurd proposition!
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